Don't take my word for it, this case is just blatantly connected to identity-politics:
The Limits of #MeToo: Sectionalism, Economism, and “Identity Politics” on the Left
In the #MeToo era, identity politics has veered away from its roots. A misuse of identity is not just a conservative problem.
As the Kavanaugh backlash shows, #MeToo hasn't gone far enough
The Kavanaugh Hearings Are Hurting #MeToo
So, I had to (re) look-up the definition of identity politics, and as I suspected, it is so broad as to be meaningless.
Here's a definition from wikipedia: "Identity politics are political positions based on the interests and perspectives of social groups with which people identify. Identity politics includes the ways in which people's politics are shaped by aspects of their identity through loosely[clarification needed] correlated social organizations. Examples include social organizations based on age, religion, social class or caste, culture, dialect, disability, education, ethnicity, language, nationality, sex, gender identity, generation, occupation, profession, race, political party affiliation, sexual orientation, settlement, urban and rural habitation, and veteran status."
So basically, any political position involving people could be labeled "identity politics." Under this definition there are very few political positions that are not identity politics. Given the above definition, why do people love to use this empty phrase so much? Is it meant to sound pejorative?
We have a case where a woman claims she was sexually assaulted many years ago. We have many Republicans and Democratic Senators on record stating they believe her. We have a Supreme Court appointee who, it is claimed, lied under oath. And you say this is a case of identity politics by the Left. Why use such an empty phrase to label one side on this and not the other? Why use such a phrase at all?