Maybe I'm misinterpreting (if I am, I apologies) but this line stands out for me.
Can you conclude actions by US police in cases with excessive force are because they are being specifically trained by Israel (given they are likely to be trained by multiple sources)? No.
I totally agree with the point that you can't equate excessive force in the US specifically due to their Israel training. Yes I do take it as a direct dig at Israel.
My point however is that having a dig at Israel is NOT automatically an anti-Semitic slur because Israel and Judaism are not the same thing.
Could it have be an anti-Semitic slur in a thinly veiled guise by the original poster? Maybe, however that's a fairly big assumption rather than any form of fact.
Like I said before, if people state that any and every criticism of Israel is anti-Semitic then they're being anti-Semitic themselves - simple as that.
Judaism and Israel are separate entities. Having a go at Saudi Arabia does not directly equate to having a go at Islam etc. etc. etc.