Apologies if this has already been discussed, but I’ve just done some Big Shaq style “quick maths” on this AstraZenica blood clot scandal and I’m confused.
According to reports I’ve just read, the estimates are that these “rare” blood clots occur normally between 2 in a million and 16 in a million (between 1 in 500,000 and 1 in 62,500). In the UK there has been 18 million doses of the AstraZenica vaccine given, with 30 cases of the clotting occurring. This is 1 in 600,000, which is actually LOWER than would normally be “expected” even without having the vaccine.
So I’m really struggling to see any causation link here?