Seamus Colemole
Previously deathbyropeandglass
I guess I have issue with 3 things on this:
1) What is "clearly obstructing?" Dictionary seems to suggest this means prevent or hinder. I don't know what level of "in the way" = obstruction of sight, but I would presume it is more than 1%, and so "marginally in the line of sight" does not equal "clearly obstructing." It's of course impossible to know what De Gea's line of sight is, but it does appear that De Gea is clearly tracking the ball before and after deflection in an unhindered manner.
2) "Clear and obvious" error seems a 2x issue when laid on top of "clearly obstructing." I know it's argued that offsides is binary, but this is not an issue of whether he was offside, it is an issue of whether he was obstructing, which is a value call. Is it "clear and obvious" that the ruling on the field was incorrect?
3) Finally, is Maguire's deflection considered "an opponent who deliberately plays the ball" ? If so, then it's not even offside to begin.
This is really #2, again. Whether you consider it potentially disallowable or potentially allowable is very different from whether you consider the decision on the field a "clear and obvious error." The correction should be based on incontrovertible evidence.
Yeah, it's pretty much not a "clear and obvious" mistake by the onfield ref, but we've seen all season that when it comes to offside, PL VAR officials are going by "was it offside or not" regardless of the clear and obvious bit. As for Maguire, i don't think thats considered a "deliberate play" because using common sense can usually tell the difference between that and a deflection, which this was. He adjusted his feet and took a step as the ball hit his heel but i don't think he was trying to play the ball, it just hit him. I know he's pretty bad but not bad enough to do that.
Like i said before, i think it should have stood, but i can see what the justifciation was in law for disallowing it.