I would say quite the opposite, you're not using the word 'unquantifiable' enough. You keep saying 'no quantifiable advantage' which effectively means 'no advantage', whereas what you mean is 'an unquantifiable advantage'. You're saying words matter, but using the wrong ones.
Personally I think it's really obvious that what they meant was 'you'd have to assume that they gained a sporting advantage but obviously we have no way of knowing what that advantage would equate to in terms of points'. I think it's very disingenuous to suggest otherwise. If they'd meant that there was no advantage or that it was so small as to be irrelevant they'd have said so, because words are important.
I don't know how much interactions you've had with solicitors mate, but nothing ever seems very obvious to them!
Youre obviously an intelligent and logical guy, and I agree with what you say. But my experience of legality would be that it's not always very logical, so I have no idea. I've seen solicitors make more ludicrous counters than what's being outlined.
I suppose you could take the other view, which is if they meant it to be it's immeasurable, they would have said immeasurable. Its left open. Maybe they mean both. I have no idea.
You could make a case, that had Everton for example-sold the women's team, or reduced costs on the new ground by 19 million, impact would have been unquantifiable via insignificance wouldn't it? Or for the purpose of this trial, unquantifiable.
Just for clarity, I am not trying to say no sporting advantage, I'm just trying to say no measurable sporting advantage, "unquantifiable". Which given the case is around what can be quantified, feels a bit of a weakness to me.
If you are taking action against someone, you're not really proving what may be done wrong in an abstract sense, but what is quantifiable to your situation.
But who knows.