Ok lads, I've only made an account on here as I can't find any answers to this anywhere, even twitter. Have searched here but cannot find it either.
Found an article on ESPN the day before we played Dinamo Kiev at home, which said they had successfully appealed Yarmolenko's ban, which they had reduced from 3 games to 1 meaning he would be free to face Everton in both legs.
However, a week later, Zlatan Ibrahimovic was sent off against Chelsea, receiving the same 3 match ban that Yarmolenko did, but UEFA said that PSG couldn't appeal the ban unless it was a case of mistaken identity.
I've watched the highlights of Guingamp v Dinamo, where Yarmolenko is sent off for violent conduct. Why were Dinamo allowed to appeal his and Belhanda's ban (who was sent off for a similar foul, but the appeal was unsuccessful), but PSG weren't allowed to appeal Ibrahimovic's ban? Do the rules differ for champions league and Europa league?
If the rules don't differ, Yarmolenko wouldn't have played against us at all. Across the 2 legs, he scored one, set up 2, and played a big role in the 4th goal, so he played big roles in 4 of their 6 goals. At the time, many of Dinamo's wingers weren't able to play, such as Belhanda (banned) and Lens (injured I think), meaning if Yarmolenko was also unable to play, they would have had to either play a youth player or play someone who isn't a winger.
Doesn't this sound a bit dodgy? Their best player having a ban appealed (even though appeals not allowed in these circumstances), UEFA reducing it to a one game ban (which he'd already served) the day before the first leg, then he plays big roles in 4 goals and we lose 6-4 on aggregate? What do you all think?
Found an article on ESPN the day before we played Dinamo Kiev at home, which said they had successfully appealed Yarmolenko's ban, which they had reduced from 3 games to 1 meaning he would be free to face Everton in both legs.
However, a week later, Zlatan Ibrahimovic was sent off against Chelsea, receiving the same 3 match ban that Yarmolenko did, but UEFA said that PSG couldn't appeal the ban unless it was a case of mistaken identity.
I've watched the highlights of Guingamp v Dinamo, where Yarmolenko is sent off for violent conduct. Why were Dinamo allowed to appeal his and Belhanda's ban (who was sent off for a similar foul, but the appeal was unsuccessful), but PSG weren't allowed to appeal Ibrahimovic's ban? Do the rules differ for champions league and Europa league?
If the rules don't differ, Yarmolenko wouldn't have played against us at all. Across the 2 legs, he scored one, set up 2, and played a big role in the 4th goal, so he played big roles in 4 of their 6 goals. At the time, many of Dinamo's wingers weren't able to play, such as Belhanda (banned) and Lens (injured I think), meaning if Yarmolenko was also unable to play, they would have had to either play a youth player or play someone who isn't a winger.
Doesn't this sound a bit dodgy? Their best player having a ban appealed (even though appeals not allowed in these circumstances), UEFA reducing it to a one game ban (which he'd already served) the day before the first leg, then he plays big roles in 4 goals and we lose 6-4 on aggregate? What do you all think?
